Why “Pedophilia” Was So Normalized in Ancient Greece
<p>Ifyou’ve spent any time on the internet, you’ve probably heard some disturbing justifications for pedophilia. Some claim it’s just another “sexual orientation” that <a href="https://www.reuters.com/article/uk-factcheck-lgbtq-community-p-acronym/factcheck-thelgbtq-community-isnotadding-p-to-their-acronym-idUSKBN2352J8" rel="noopener ugc nofollow" target="_blank">deserves</a> to be added to the LGBTQ+ spectrum. Others claim that it’s a <a href="https://www.nytimes.com/2014/10/06/opinion/pedophilia-a-disorder-not-a-crime.html" rel="noopener ugc nofollow" target="_blank">harmless source of pleasure</a>.</p>
<p>And yet others use a historical <a href="https://kb.osu.edu/handle/1811/37221" rel="noopener ugc nofollow" target="_blank">justification</a> — they point to Ancient Greece, where sexual relationships between young men and older men were highly idealized.</p>
<p>And yes, it’s true that such relationships were extremely common in ancient Greece. But is it accurate to call them pedophilic?</p>
<p>Sure, Greek “pederasty” involved practices that are usually frowned upon today. After all, the word <a href="https://www.historyextra.com/period/ancient-greece/pederasty-homosexuality-ancient-greece-boys-sparta-girls-plato-sappho-consent/" rel="noopener ugc nofollow" target="_blank"><em>paiderastia</em></a> translates to “love of boys.” But it’s <a href="https://kb.osu.edu/handle/1811/37221" rel="noopener ugc nofollow" target="_blank">not accurate</a> to equate it with modern pedophilia, since it didn’t involve pre-pubescent boys.</p>
<p><a href="https://medium.com/exploring-history/why-pedophilia-was-so-normalized-in-ancient-greece-79164dc72930"><strong>Read More</strong></a></p>